Didacus Posted September 23, 2008 Share Posted September 23, 2008 [quote name='dominicansoul' post='1638620' date='Aug 26 2008, 11:14 AM']This was written in such a way, as to show that Jesus was not conceived in the natural way, and St. Joseph was NOT his father. It was to emphasize that Jesus was the Son of God, and that is why this was written as such. It is not indicating that Mary and Joseph began having marital relations afterwards. The sentence's whole purpose was to let us know, those of us who are reading it thousands of years after the fact, that Jesus IS the Christ, the Son of GOD. (*sigh* Beautiful isn't it???) [/quote] Yes, the bible is beautiful indeed. No one inspires like God inspires. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mortify Posted September 29, 2008 Share Posted September 29, 2008 The NAB commentary states, [color="#0000FF"]"The Greek word translated 'until' does not imply normal marital conduct after Jesus' birth, nor does it exclude it."[/color] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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