KnightofChrist Posted December 17, 2015 Share Posted December 17, 2015 8 minutes ago, Peace said: Fair enough. But if that is what was meant by it, then Cam's statement does not make whole lot of sense to me. Cam42 wrote "Mary was incapable of sinning, because she didn't know what sin was." If that is what he means by "does not know what sin was" then then Cam's statement, restated another way, seems to be "Mary was incapable of sinning because she never sinned." It does not make sense (at least to me). Having an understanding of sin, which I'm sure she had, is not the same as not knowing sin. There is an great divide between Mary and sin as there is a divide between light and darkness. I understand Cam as saying Mary was incapable of sinning because she had no relation, no correction, no acquaintance to sin. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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