Pliny Posted May 9, 2010 Share Posted May 9, 2010 I found Thomas Aquinas' answer to this question: [url="http://www.newadvent.org/summa/3150.htm"]http://www.newadvent.org/summa/3150.htm[/url] I was a little suprised to see Catholics discussing this topic on another forum, and most of them were of the opinion it was not a sin to be drunk. Is what Aquinas says completely in-line with what the Church teaches? (I'm not looking for a loophole--I'm not much of a drinker). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cappie Posted May 9, 2010 Share Posted May 9, 2010 Given the conditions for committing a mortal sin, I would agree with St Thomas. Drinking to excess would come under the sin of gluttony, which is the inordinate longing for food and drink. Intemperance in drinking which has its effect in the loss of reason, is a grave sin. Intoxication that results in a partial loss of reason is a venial sin. Intoxication that ends in complete loss of reason is a mortal sin if brought on without a sufficient reason. Complete loss of reason is presumed in one who can no longer distinguish good from bad, or if the drunkenness has passed cannot remember what he said or did while under the influence, or if one does a thing which he never would have done when sober. To make another person completely drunk is also a grave sin. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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