Laudate_Dominum Posted January 4, 2010 Posted January 4, 2010 Have to refer to a specific case to make a determination but generally speaking my answer is no. There are many innocent reasons why works have been attributed to famous ppl.
Resurrexi Posted January 4, 2010 Author Posted January 4, 2010 [quote name='Laudate_Dominum' date='04 January 2010 - 02:58 PM' timestamp='1262635081' post='2029556'] Have to refer to a specific case to make a determination but generally speaking my answer is no. [/quote] I agree. I ran into a Protestant on CTF today who said that the author of the Protoevangelium of James was a liar, which I thought was whack.
cmotherofpirl Posted January 4, 2010 Posted January 4, 2010 I think you have to consider the intent of the author.
HisChildForever Posted January 4, 2010 Posted January 4, 2010 [quote name='Resurrexi' date='04 January 2010 - 03:00 PM' timestamp='1262635229' post='2029558'] I ran into a Protestant on CTF today who said that the author of the Protoevangelium of James was a liar, which I thought was whack. [/quote] Welcome to CTF.
Winchester Posted January 4, 2010 Posted January 4, 2010 Somebody was given the worst word of the day calendar ever.
King's Rook's Pawn Posted January 4, 2010 Posted January 4, 2010 It's impossible to see into the heart of a writer from millennia ago and divine his true intents. All you have is the text.
Laudate_Dominum Posted January 5, 2010 Posted January 5, 2010 [quote name='Kings Rooks Pawn' date='04 January 2010 - 03:50 PM' timestamp='1262638234' post='2029588'] It's impossible to see into the heart of a writer from millennia ago and divine his true intents. All you have is the text. [/quote] [spoiler][code]Amen, but I imagine there are specific cases that could be described as probably deception. For example, trying to legitimize dubious theological opinion by forging a letter of St. Augustine or something. If there is historical evidence that a particular document was a matter of deception I can see how it might be important to take note of that.[/code][/spoiler]
Lounge Daddy Posted January 5, 2010 Posted January 5, 2010 I might do a poll asking "did you know that 'pseudepigraphical' is a word? If so, do you know what it means?"
Seven77 Posted January 6, 2010 Posted January 6, 2010 Protestants call them 'pseudepigraphical,' but don't we call them 'apocryphal'? I believe that Protestants use the word 'pseudepigraphical' because they call the Deuterocanonical books 'apocryphal.'
Resurrexi Posted January 6, 2010 Author Posted January 6, 2010 (edited) [quote name='Seven77' date='06 January 2010 - 04:40 PM' timestamp='1262814031' post='2031109'] Protestants call them 'pseudepigraphical,' but don't we call them 'apocryphal'? I believe that Protestants use the word 'pseudepigraphical' because they call the Deuterocanonical books 'apocryphal.' [/quote] A pseudepigrapical work is any work in which the claimed author is not the person who actually composed the text. Edited January 6, 2010 by Resurrexi
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