mulls Posted August 15, 2003 Posted August 15, 2003 i know there's another topic out there somewhere about this, but i can't find it right now. i will make this short and sweet while it's fresh in my head. shortly after Jesus was born, Mary goes to the temple to offer two birds (doves or pigeons, i think) as sacrifices. In Leviticus, we see that one of these birds was meant to be a sin sacrifice. so if Mary was indeed sinless, why did she offer up a sin sacrifice? just to keep tradition (or the law)? Eh? i will quote the verses specifically a little later if need be, if nobody else gets to them first. thanks, gotta run. sean
DojoGrant Posted August 15, 2003 Posted August 15, 2003 It was the Jewish law to do this, and Mary, being sinless, was completely obediant to the law.
Chrysologus Posted August 15, 2003 Posted August 15, 2003 BOOM! Try again, mulls! Just kidding. Just look at Christian tradition, man! We've always believed Mary was sinless! Not by her own power, by the amesome power of our God!
cmotherofpirl Posted August 15, 2003 Posted August 15, 2003 Mulls this is the same as Jesus being Baptised. He didn't need purification from his sin, he did it to "fulfill righteousness."
musturde Posted August 15, 2003 Posted August 15, 2003 (edited) I started the topic just look for "The Virgin Mary's sinlessness". Now to stop this debate once and for all, in the Gospel of James (not in the Bible) talks about The Virgin Mary's sinlessness. Now if James was a Apostle of Jesus then he would obviously know if Jesus' own Mother was sinful or not. Now there is some question to this Gospel but The Blessed Mother's parents are Saints (They gave the Blessed Mother to God from her birth). Now this still might not be enough to prove this Gospel is true but if you think if the prayers to The Virgin's parents and the prayers to her and the apparitions of her, you would see that since these miracles happen there must be some significance to it. Since it is stupid to argue about the miracles I will rest my case here. Edited August 15, 2003 by musturde
Brother Adam Posted August 16, 2003 Posted August 16, 2003 yeah, like that'll be the end of it :unsure:
Carson Weber Posted August 16, 2003 Posted August 16, 2003 yeah, like that'll be the end of it Hahahaha... Sean, James Akin has a pretty cool answer to this objection here: http://www.cin.org/users/james/questions/q051.htm In the article, he also refers us to where St. Thomas Aquinas answered this precise question in the Summa Theologiae in the Tertia Pars, that is, in III:37:4.
Luke2219 Posted August 16, 2003 Posted August 16, 2003 Also, couldn't Mary have been offering the sacrifice for the sins of others and not herself. It's still part of our tradition to offer sacrifices for the sins of the whole world not just our own.
mulls Posted August 16, 2003 Author Posted August 16, 2003 i believe it was required for every woman to offer these sacrifices for herself after she gave birth....one of them was for sin
musturde Posted August 16, 2003 Posted August 16, 2003 (edited) Okay now looking at the arguement that "Everyone's a sinner" well Jesus was a person also so if the Virgin could be implied into there, then a person could imply Jesus (Our own God) as a sinner. Edited August 16, 2003 by musturde
Chrysologus Posted August 16, 2003 Posted August 16, 2003 Jesus got baptized but he wasn't a sinner. Mary offered sacrifice but she wasn't a sinner.
Aloysius Posted August 17, 2003 Posted August 17, 2003 "Mary was sinless" (Gospel according to Aloysius 3:16) i rest my case
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