infinitelord1 Posted January 9, 2011 Posted January 9, 2011 The Following Books are not included in the Tanakh (Hebrew Bible) or Protestant Old Testament. Where do these Books come from? Tobit Judith Baruch Wisdom Sirach 1 Maccabees 2 Maccabees
MarkKurallSchuenemann Posted January 9, 2011 Posted January 9, 2011 Jewish people from those times. You also forgot Enoch.
Archaeology cat Posted January 9, 2011 Posted January 9, 2011 They were included in the Septuagint (Greek OT). After the destruction of the temple in AD 70, the Jews officially closed the canon and only included books for which there were extant Hebrew copies. If I remember correctly, Hebrew copies of some of the deuterocanonical books have now been found. The Septuagint was what was generally used by the early Christians.
cmotherofpirl Posted January 9, 2011 Posted January 9, 2011 here is the long and detailed answer if you are interested: http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/01601a.htm
MIKolbe Posted January 20, 2011 Posted January 20, 2011 [quote name='infinitelord1' timestamp='1294556895' post='2198056'] The Following Books are not included in the Tanakh (Hebrew Bible) or Protestant Old Testament. Where do these Books come from? Tobit Judith Baruch Wisdom Sirach 1 Maccabees 2 Maccabees [/quote] Ethiopian Jews have these books in their Bible.
Papist Posted January 20, 2011 Posted January 20, 2011 The original Kings James Version[ie Protestant OT] had these books.
Ed Normile Posted January 23, 2011 Posted January 23, 2011 You guys realize we do not refer to them as Apocrypha, we as Catholics refer to them as Deutero Canonical books. The former means untrue or dubious in nature. ed
Sternhauser Posted January 23, 2011 Posted January 23, 2011 (edited) Ed, good call. An example of an apocryphal book would be the "Gospel of St. Thomas," in which it was written that the child Jesus brought little golems to life. Kind of like this. [media]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=diVqham5cKA[/media] ~Sternhauser Edited January 23, 2011 by Sternhauser
jegudiel Posted January 23, 2011 Posted January 23, 2011 I've wondered of late why we still call them 'Apocrypha,' when they are accepted in the canon by Catholics and Orthodox; counted together, those are over 1.25 billion of the world's two billion Christians, so isn't it the Protestants who don't use these books, who are in the minority by now?
Nihil Obstat Posted January 23, 2011 Posted January 23, 2011 (edited) [quote name='jegudiel' timestamp='1295809595' post='2203461'] I've wondered of late why we still call them 'Apocrypha,' when they are accepted in the canon by Catholics and Orthodox; counted together, those are over 1.25 billion of the world's two billion Christians, so isn't it the Protestants who don't use these books, who are in the minority by now? [/quote] *We* don't (call it that). Only the Protestants do. Edited January 23, 2011 by Nihil Obstat
MIKolbe Posted January 23, 2011 Posted January 23, 2011 funny you say that... i have a non-denom buddy who refers to it as that....it's always a 'fun' conversation to set him straight. lol
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