Nihil Obstat Posted August 19, 2016 Author Posted August 19, 2016 (edited) 4 hours ago, <3 PopeFrancis said: I do consider myself a traditionalist. Not intending to be rude, but is English not your first language? Apologies for formatting. The reply box seems not to be cooperating today. Edited August 19, 2016 by Nihil Obstat Reply box is broken.
<3 PopeFrancis Posted August 19, 2016 Posted August 19, 2016 10 minutes ago, Nihil Obstat said: Not intending to be rude, but is English not your first language? Why do you ask this? 10 minutes ago, Nihil Obstat said: Not intending to be rude, but is English not your first language? Why do you ask this?
KnightofChrist Posted August 19, 2016 Posted August 19, 2016 it's like deja vu all over again it's like deja vu all over again
<3 PopeFrancis Posted August 19, 2016 Posted August 19, 2016 10 minutes ago, Nihil Obstat said: Not intending to be rude, but is English not your first language? Why do you ask this?
Nihil Obstat Posted August 19, 2016 Author Posted August 19, 2016 Because I am finding it incredibly difficult to parse your replies in this thread. Because I am finding it incredibly difficult to parse your replies in this thread.
Papist Posted August 22, 2016 Posted August 22, 2016 On 8/18/2016 at 10:07 PM, Sponsa-Christi said: I actually don't think---if you read it from a "hermeneutic of continuity" (as in, reading it while presuming that everything that the Church has said about these issues before still applies now)---that the footnote in question is really problematic. For instance: We've always known that there can be factors that mitigate the sinfulness of a situation. So of course it could be that there are factors which mitigate the sinfulness of an irregular marriage (which is certainly not to say that ALL irregular marriages now automatically have factors that would mitigate the couple's culpability!). In such a case, the person in an irregular situation wouldn't be guilty of mortal sin, so it would follow that God's grace would be alive in their soul in at least some way. If a couple in such a situation wanted to grow in grace, then of course the Church should help them do this (as the Church wants to help EVERYONE grow in grace and charity)---but naturally, this would eventually mean duly explaining the objective sinfulness of an irregular marriage and helping them resolve their situation in whatever ways were possible. I honestly took "certain cases" to mean "cases where the couple is living as brother and sister." Again, it's nothing new to propose that an irregularly married couple who making is an effort to be chaste can receive the sacraments in some situations. Also, the confessional SHOULD be a positive encounter with God's mercy. I don't think that idea is controversial in any way. I believe, it is how ambiguous the Pope is in his statements that is concerning.
<3 PopeFrancis Posted August 22, 2016 Posted August 22, 2016 3 hours ago, Papist said: I believe, it is how ambiguous the Pope is in his statements that is concerning. Non-Catholics have been commenting to me of how the Holy Father sort of speaks from the side of his mouth. I see Jesus when I see the Holy Father; however, non-Catholics and returning Catholics alike find what he says confusing. I mean, I understand what he means when he says "Who am I to judge?" when asked his position on homosexuality. Someone who thinks that sexual deviance is actually an issue might be confused. It can be concerning, I agree.
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