ICTHUS Posted October 1, 2003 Author Posted October 1, 2003 (edited) My opponents main argument is something alone these lines: "How could Mary have been saved from a sin that she didn't actually commit (or in this case, wasn't imputed to her) and therefore DIDNT ACTUALLY EXIST in the first place" Edited October 1, 2003 by ICTHUS
ICTHUS Posted October 2, 2003 Author Posted October 2, 2003 (edited) bump I need an answer to this please! Refer to the original argument posted on pg. 1 Edited October 2, 2003 by ICTHUS
cmotherofpirl Posted October 2, 2003 Posted October 2, 2003 Baptism saves us from original sin. If mary was normally concieved she would have had original sin as well. This is an inherited sin not something any of us commit. WE are saved thru Baptism and Mary saved thru God's intervention. Does this help?
ICTHUS Posted October 2, 2003 Author Posted October 2, 2003 Okay, new response So, rather than being saved from her sin, she was saved from the capability of sinning? This is salvation in a manner entirely different than that salvation applicable to the rest of the elect! Surely this must require some extensive argumentation, if we are to show different outlines through which the work of Christ saves us. No, Mary was well and truly saved from her sin, in that she was prevented from falling into the stain of original sin in the first place. Without the merits of Christ's sacrifice on the Cross which, applied to her early, preserved her from the stain of original sin, she would have been a slave to sin, just like the rest of us. The way I like to think of it is that just as original sin, a "virus" if you will, was about to be imputed onto her, grace entered her and blocked it out. The filling up with grace, cancelled out the "filling up with sin" which "tried" to happen at the same time. This is an extremely difficult concept to understand, but I hope you can understand what I'm saying... She still could have sinned, but her conscience and morality would have been in the same state Eve's was before the Fall. She had the capability to sin, yes, because she had free will, but she wasn't a slave to sin like we are, or were if you happen to be regenerate, because she was preserved from original sin.
Anna Posted October 2, 2003 Posted October 2, 2003 "How could Mary have been saved from a sin that she didn't actually commit (or in this case, wasn't imputed to her) and therefore DIDNT ACTUALLY EXIST in the first place" The same way that God saved you from drug addiction, prostitution, and becoming a chain saw murderer....By HIS grace! (Of which, Scripture tells us, Mary is "full".) Pax Christi. <><
ICTHUS Posted October 3, 2003 Author Posted October 3, 2003 So, going back to my opponents original question, "rather than being saved from her sin, she was saved from the capability of sinning?"
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