musturde Posted January 7, 2005 Posted January 7, 2005 Can I have anything on this dude? Was his translation of the Bible heretical or was it just not allowed because of John Wyclef? Is it a little of both? If this is true, how do i prove it?
musturde Posted January 7, 2005 Author Posted January 7, 2005 I meant how do i prove it cuz there are two different views of history on this.
phatcatholic Posted January 7, 2005 Posted January 7, 2005 this article should answer all of your questions: --[url="http://catholic.com/thisrock/2002/0212fea3.asp"][b]Tyndale's Heresy: The Real Story of the "Father of the English Bible"[/b][/url]
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