Ziggamafu Posted February 9, 2005 Posted February 9, 2005 I'm married and my wife and I use NFP. However, does the Church teach that all sexual [i]actions[/i] (i.e., french kissing, petting, etc.) must be open to procreation? In other words, can no sexual action at all take place unless it is within the context of procreative intercourse?
Adeodatus Posted February 9, 2005 Posted February 9, 2005 'Open to procreation' is a poor translation of what the Church means. Infertile or post-menopausal couples, or couples using NFP are not attempting to procreate, yet their marital sex is described as 'open to procreation'. The term means 'normal genital sex' without barriers, chemicals, etc., and using the proper sexual organs etc. Must all sexual actions be "open to procreation"? There are 'sexual actions' and there are sexual actions. All genital expressions of sex (and of course only within the context of marriage) must be "open to procreation", i.e. [i]at least[/i] finish as an act of normal human genital sex. So they might begin as actions which may or may not be preambles to marital intercourse, e.g. having a coffee together, snogging (French kissing), petting. Having coffee does not necessarily lead to sex (as many can testify), because it does not necessarily arouse a couple to such a point. Snogging may do that, but say it is a farewell French kiss as one spouse catches a train, there may not be time or privacy to have marital sex. So it need not lead to sex. Petting I suspect is probably terribly stimulating, and should be consummated with normal sex. It should not be indulged in as an [i]alternative[/i] to sex, but as an [i]adjunct[/i].
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