daugher-of-Mary Posted May 11, 2005 Posted May 11, 2005 I got this question from our FBC site and don't have an answer... If Mary was pure, without sin, then why did she do the following in Luke 2:22-24: 22And when the days for their purification according to the law of Moses were completed, they brought Him up to Jerusalem to present Him to the Lord” 23(as it is written in the Law of the Lord, “EVERY firstborn MALE THAT OPENS THE WOMB SHALL BE CALLED HOLY TO THE LORD”), 24and to offer a sacrifice according to what was said in the Law of the Lord, “A PAIR OF TURTLEDOVES OR TWO YOUNG PIGEONS.” Ok from that lets look at what Leviticus 12:1-8 says: 1Then the LORD spoke to Moses, saying, 2“Speak to the sons of Israel, saying: ‘When a woman gives birth and bears a male child, then she shall be unclean for seven days, as in the days of her menstruation she shall be unclean. 3‘On the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised. 4‘Then she shall remain in the blood of her purification for thirty-three days; she shall not touch any consecrated thing, nor enter the sanctuary until the days of her purification are completed. 5‘But if she bears a female child, then she shall be unclean for two weeks, as in her menstruation; and she shall remain in the blood of her purification for sixty-six days. 6‘When the days of her purification are completed, for a son or for a daughter, she shall bring to the priest at the doorway of the tent of meeting a one year old lamb for a burnt offering and a young pigeon or a turtledove for a sin offering. 7‘Then he shall offer it before the LORD and make atonement for her, and she shall be cleansed from the flow of her blood. This is the law for her who bears a child, whether a male or a female. 8‘But if she cannot afford a lamb, then she shall take two turtledoves or two young pigeons, the one for a burnt offering and the other for a sin offering; and the priest shall make atonement for her, and she will be clean.’” Now if Mary was pure and sinless, then why in the world did she go through the purification period? Why in the world did she offer a sacrifice for sin to the priest? Oh and why in the world would a priest need to make atonement for her to cleanse her?
philothea Posted May 11, 2005 Posted May 11, 2005 The people of the time would have been scandalized if she had not gone through the purification procedure, regardless of whether she needed it or not.
phatcatholic Posted May 11, 2005 Posted May 11, 2005 [url="http://www.cin.org/users/james/questions/q051.htm"]http://www.cin.org/users/james/questions/q051.htm[/url] [b]Q: How can Catholics claim that Mary is sinless when Luke tells us that she went to the Temple for the childbirth purification ritual (Luke 2:22-24), which included a sin offering (Lev. 12:8)?[/b] [b]A:[/b] It is amazing how people think something like the Catholic Church that has been around for two thousand years will not have encountered such basic objections before. In fact, St. Thomas Aquinas has a nice section in the Summa Theologiae (III:37:4) on precisely this topic, which is interesting in that in his day the question was academic as everyone already believed that Mary was entirely sinless by a miracle of God's grace (just as we will all be entirely sinless one day). Just goes to show how thorough the Angelic Doctor was in refuting every conceivable objection. And it is amazingly easy to stomp this fragile objection into tiny little pieces. The basic answer is that Mary submitted to the childbirth purification ritual--with its mandatory sin offering--for the same reasons that Jesus submitted to circumcision (a purification ritual symbolizing being made spiritually clean; cf. Deut. 10:16, 30:6, Jer. 4:4, Rom. 2:29), celebrated the Passover (which was also a sin offering so that God's wrath would pass over the household), and baptism (another purification ritual; Acts 22:16, 1 Peter 3:21). In fact, if there were any difficulty in explaining Mary's submission to the purification ritual, it would be ten times harder to explain Christ's submission to these rituals since he was instrinsically and infinitely holy, while Mary was merely rendered entirely sinless by God's grace, as we shall be. The first reason Christ submitted to circumcision and Passover was that the Mosaic Law required it, and he (like Mary) was "born under the Law" (Gal. 4:4). The second reason is that to remove any cause for criticism and slander on the part of others, Christ submitted to things in the Mosaic Law of which he had no personal need or requirement (cf. Matt. 17:24-27). The third reason is that Christ did these things in order to provide an example for others--an example of obedience to the Mosaic Law with regard to circumcision and Passover, and an example of obedience to the Christian Law in the case of baptism. There were other reasons as well (such as the fact that these rituals pointed toward Christ), but the three that have been given are a more than adequate explanation of why Mary submitted to the Mosaic Law ritual of purification after childbirth (including its sin offering). She was born under the Law, she wished to give no occasion for slander in her conduct, and she wished to give an example to others. Here is the most important part of what the Angelic Doctor has to say on the matter:[list][b]Objection 1.[/b] It would seem that it was unfitting for the Mother of God to go to the Temple to be purified. For purification presupposes uncleanness. But there was no uncleanness in the Blessed Virgin, as stated above (III:27-28). Therefore she should not have gone to the Temple to be purified. [b]I answer that[/b], As the fulness of grace flowed from Christ on to His Mother, so it was becoming that the mother should be like her Son in humility: for "God giveth grace to the humble," as is written James 4:6. And therefore, just as Christ, though not subject to the Law, wished, nevertheless, to submit to circumcision and the other burdens of the Law, in order to give an example of humility and obedience; and in order to show His approval of the Law; and, again, in order to take away from the Jews an excuse for calumniating Him: for the same reasons He wished His Mother also to fulfil the prescriptions of the Law, to which, nevertheless, she was not subject. [b]Reply to Objection 1.[/b] Although the Blessed Virgin had no uncleanness, yet she wished to fulfil the observance of purification, not because she needed it, but on account of the precept of the Law. Thus the Evangelist says pointedly that the days of her purification "according to the Law" were accomplished; for she needed no purification in herself. [/list]'Nuff said!
daugher-of-Mary Posted May 11, 2005 Author Posted May 11, 2005 whoa. awesome. Gotta love the "dumb ox"
journeyman Posted May 11, 2005 Posted May 11, 2005 Didn't Paul also undergo a ritual purification that was not strictly required, but was done for the purpose of showing obediance to the Mosaic law, and obtaining a more favorable reception at the Temple? If I remember correctly, it was right before he got chased out of the Temple and into Roman custody Not that Paul is in the same class as Mary, but it is another example of undergoing a purification ceremony when it was not necessary.
MilesChristi Posted May 12, 2005 Posted May 12, 2005 [quote]Didn't Paul also undergo a ritual purification that was not strictly required, but was done for the purpose of showing obediance to the Mosaic law, and obtaining a more favorable reception at the Temple?[/quote] 18: On the following day Paul went in with us to James; and all the elders were present. 19: After greeting them, he related one by one the things that God had done among the Gentiles through his ministry. 20: And when they heard it, they glorified God. And they said to him, "You see, brother, how many thousands there are among the Jews of those who have believed; they are all zealous for the law, 21: and they have been told about you that you teach all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, telling them not to circumcise their children or observe the customs. 22: What then is to be done? They will certainly hear that you have come. 23: Do therefore what we tell you. We have four men who are under a vow; 24: take these men and purify yourself along with them and pay their expenses, so that they may shave their heads. Thus all will know that there is nothing in what they have been told about you but that you yourself live in observance of the law. 25: But as for the Gentiles who have believed, we have sent a letter with our judgment that they should abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols and from blood and from what is strangled and from unchastity." 26: Then Paul took the men, and the next day he purified himself with them and went into the temple, to give notice when the days of purification would be fulfilled and the offering presented for every one of them.
franciscanheart Posted May 12, 2005 Posted May 12, 2005 [quote name='MilesChristi' date='May 11 2005, 10:28 PM'] oops...Acts 21 [/quote] silly
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