theculturewarrior Posted October 4, 2005 Posted October 4, 2005 Why have there been so many requiem masses written thoughout history, but no nuptual masses?
Cam42 Posted October 5, 2005 Posted October 5, 2005 The answer is quite simple. Acutally, I asked the same thing about 10 years ago and the answer was so simple that I said, "duh....go figure." The Requiem Mass is not any different than that of the Nuptual Mass, except that the first word of the Missa pro defunctis is Requiem. The added movements are part of the burial service, not the Mass proper. So, the funeral Mass and the Wedding Mass are essentially the same, with the exception of a sequence (dies Irae). The Libera Me and In paradisum are traditionally done in chant at the cemetery. This hasn't been done in some years, even before the Council. ------------- Essentially the Mass is the same, regardless of the celebration. Whether it be in Easter or in Lent. The Requiem is more standardized which allows for more composition, where as the Wedding Mass is not as standard, and the music is more determined by the individuals. That is a round about way to say that the Requiem is a standardized setting where as the Wedding is more dynamic from a musical standpoint. Notice though that the Mass remains the same, with the exception of the added [i]Dies Irae[/i].
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now