Guest julia Posted October 7, 2005 Posted October 7, 2005 I went to confession last night and now I'm confused! (absolved but confused!). I know that during the marriage act the husband must 'finish' in the woman, I also know that it isn't necesary but it is desired that the woman climax and that it doesn't matter if it is before, with or after the man. But is it alright for the woman to climax and then for them both to decide to stop there? Is a woman's orgasm only supposed to be part of a completed marriage act? Julia
phatcatholic Posted October 7, 2005 Posted October 7, 2005 [quote name='julia' date='Oct 7 2005, 01:11 AM']But is it alright for the woman to climax and then for them both to decide to stop there?[/quote] No. let me explain. your orgasm is his gift to you. his orgasm is your gift to him. these two gifts come together to fulfill the unitive and procreative dimensions of the sex act. thus, there is a sense in which, if one orgasms and the other does not, then the act is incomplete. understood in this way, i would say that the female orgasm is in fact a necessary component of the sex act. at any rate, it would not acceptable for you to stop after you experience your orgasm, but before he does, because then you have stripped the sex act, at the very least, from its procreative dimension. [quote]Is a woman's orgasm only supposed to be part of a completed marriage act?[right][snapback]749290[/snapback][/right][/quote] Yes. if not, then you are essentially left with something akin to masturbation.
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