avemaria40 Posted October 24, 2005 Posted October 24, 2005 I know that if a spouse has impotence and a marriage is not consummated for this reason, an annulment may be granted. But what about if a marriage has been consummated and a spouse develops impotence in a marriage? would an annulment be allowed since they can't come together in the "one flesh"?
cappie Posted October 24, 2005 Posted October 24, 2005 Annunlments are declarations that a marriage was invalid from the beginning because of a defect in consent to marriage, or an inability to fulfil the responsibilities of marriage. The Catechism: 1628 The consent must be an act of the will of each of the contracting parties, free of coercion or grave external fear. No human power can substitute for this consent. If this freedom is lacking the marriage is invalid. 1629 For this reason (or for other reasons that render the marriage null and void) the Church, after an examination of the situation by the competent ecclesiastical tribunal, can declare the nullity of a marriage, i.e., that the marriage never existed. In this case the contracting parties are free to marry, provided the natural obligations of a previous union are discharged. All this concerns pre-existing conditions, so the answer is no.
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