DAF Posted October 31, 2005 Posted October 31, 2005 After reading the words of one of the venerables, I have deducted that because the pains of birth are a result of original sin, and Mary was exempted from original sin, wouldn't that mean that she was also free from the effects of O.S. (we know she was free from concupiscence but...) Wouldn't she also then have been free from the pains of birth? Thanks, in Christ
Laudate_Dominum Posted November 1, 2005 Posted November 1, 2005 It is a very ancient and venerable belief in the Church that the virginal birth of Christ through Mary was miraculous and free of the pains of birth. To the best of my knowledge this has never been declared on any formal level, however, the decree concerning Mary's perpetual virginity could be seen as strong dogmatic support in that it indicates that Mary did not lose the physical sign of virginity (the actual bodily virginal integrity) in bringing forth the Christ of God. So I would say your conclusion follows from the fact that Mary is [i]aeiparthenos [/i] (ever virgin), the meaning of which has been taught dogmatically by the council of Constantinople, Chalcedon and Pope Leo I, among others (Lateran I, Pope Paul IV, etc). The Fathers describe Mary, in her bringing forth of the Christ, as the fountain sealed, the garden enclosed, of the canticle, and compare this miraculous birth to Christ's coming forth in His resurrection from the sealed tomb. Besides the miraculous nature of Christ's birth, there is also the speculation based on what you mentioned, namely Mary's unique status as having been conceived immaculate. But I must say, the conclusion itself is not dogmatic and it is possible to speculate in other ways. But you will find yourself in good company with that speculation, as many fathers and saints are of that view.
phatcatholic Posted November 4, 2005 Posted November 4, 2005 here are a few ECF's on the painless birth of the Christ:[list][b]The Ascension of Isaiah[/b]: "[T]he report concerning the child was noised abroad in Bethlehem. Some said, ‘The Virgin Mary has given birth before she was married two months.’ And many said, ‘She has not given birth; the midwife has not gone up to her, and we heard no cries of pain’" (Ascension of Isaiah 11 [A.D. 70]). [b]The Odes of Solomon[/b]: "So the Virgin became a mother with great mercies. And she labored and bore the Son, but without pain, because it did not occur without purpose. And she did not seek a midwife, because he caused her to give life. She bore as a strong man, with will . . . " (Odes of Solomon 19 [A.D. 80]). [b]Peter Chrysoslogus[/b] may allude to it as well: "Where are they who think that the Virgin's conception and giving birth to her child are to be likened to those of other woman? For, this latter case is one of the earth, and the Virgin's is one from heaven. The one case is a case of divine power; the other of human weakness. The one case occurs in a body subject to passion; the other in the tranquility of the divine Spirit and peace of the human body. The blood was still, and the flesh astonished; her members were put at rest, and her entire womb was quiescent during the visit of the Holy One, until the Author of flesh could take on His garment of flesh, and until He, who was not merely to restore the earth to man but also to give him heaven, could become a heavenly Man. The virgin conceives, the Virgin brings forth her child, and she remains a virgin" (Sermon 117 [A.D. 432]). [/list]pax christi, phatcatholic
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