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"eternally Begotten"


willguy

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Circle_Master

As for 1Cor 15:28; We must understand that Jesus is not subordinate to the Father(i.e. making Him a "lesser" God or inferior); rather Jesus submits Himself willingly to the Father, because that is also the will of Jesus(i.e. to submit Himself to the Father). Remember in my previous post; the Father has an idea of Himself; and that idea is the Word. So the Word has to be EQUAL to the Father, and has to have the SAME will as the Father.

Subordinate in function I mean. And we agree anyway. Jesus submited willingly to the father and thus he functions in a subordinate manner.

Saying the Father has an idea of Himself is really weird however. You said then that the Word sprung from the idea. John 1 says the Word was Jesus. Haven't heard that before, it seems to indicate that the Son sprung from his thoughts too. Kindof arianish sounding with the aeons bit.

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I thought you had a diagram on this Al. So, eteranally begotten means that at every single moment the Son has been/is being/will be begotten by the Father? Talk about a mind-messer.

Hey, how does transubstantiation fit into this? Does the Son's begetting at the moment of consecration mean that the Son could, in fact, be begotten into the Eucharist much the same way that He was begotten in Mary at the moment of the Incarnation?

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