Why do we say that priests are married to the Church?

[heyyoimjohnny]

Ok, here's something I just pretty much accepted: Priests are married to the Church. I'm talking about this with some people (more like debating for the case of celibacy), and I have a couple questions.

1. Do we say Priests are married to the Church because of the association that a priest acts in the person of Christ and Christ is married to the Church? Or is there official teaching somewhere?

2. If this was the case, that priests are married to the Church, someone this up: since priests are married to the Church, then if a priest was married, he would be committing adultery. I wasn't sure about this, since the Church, back in the day, allowed priests to marry. Could someone clear this up for me?


To whoever responds, thank you kindly, and God Bless you!

[Pio Nono]

JMJ
5/28 - Seventh Sunday of Easter (Ascension of the Lord)

heyyoimjohnny,

Speaking of the priest as being "married" to the Church is a theological analogy with marriage - in the sense that Christ has wedded the Church, the priest has, by analogy, "married" the Church. It illustrates the truth that the priest has given himself completely for the sake of the Church - it does not mean that the priest is actually married to the Church. When one asserts it as a truth, a fact, one runs into problems. Your question of bigamy/adultery illustrates this perfectly. Because it isn't true as fact doesn't make its value as an analogy fall away, but we must remember that it is an analogy. The priest's celibacy doesn't have much to do with his "marriage" to the Church; it has everything to do with his imitation of the celibate Christ. Hope this helps.

Yours,
Pio Nono