thessalonian Posted September 29, 2006 Posted September 29, 2006 [quote]Well, it doesn't necessarily follow that just because Paul would baptize an entire household, that he baptized infants and wee children. This is a case of inferring something into Scripture. [/quote] Actually know that is not the case at all. We don't think that everything has to be explicit in scripture and you can't hold to explicitness no matter how much you think you can. We see infant baptism as implicit in scripture. There are some things that you see as implicit in scripture, though I don't know that you will admit it. For example I look in the dictionary and when I see the word rememberence I don't see the word symbol as any kind of a synonym. Yet you say the Lord's Supper is symbolic and this is scriptural. You have no explicit verse if you have no passage that says it is symbolic. Now from my standpoint, I don't need such a passage, but you do because you have set the noose rather tight on your arguements. The question is who's implicit is correct? Now answer a question for me that noone has ever been able to answer. We see hundreds at Billy Graham Crusades (he's a baptist you know) going up to something called an altar call and declaring Jesus Christ as Personal Lord and Savior. All very nice and I am not neccessarily knocking it. But here's the rub. Where in the Bible are there altar calls. Particularly altar calls without baptisms. You see, I never see a baptism at the Billy Graham Cursades. Yet in every single instance in the Bible such declarations were IMMEDIATELY followed by baptisms. Or is Billy's practice GASP unbiblical? Blessings
NewReformation Posted September 29, 2006 Author Posted September 29, 2006 [quote name='thessalonian' post='1079282' date='Sep 29 2006, 02:01 PM'] Now answer a question for me that noone has ever been able to answer. We see hundreds at Billy Graham Crusades (he's a baptist you know) going up to something called an altar call and declaring Jesus Christ as Personal Lord and Savior. All very nice and I am not neccessarily knocking it. But here's the rub. Where in the Bible are there altar calls. Particularly altar calls without baptisms. You see, I never see a baptism at the Billy Graham Cursades. Yet in every single instance in the Bible such declarations were IMMEDIATELY followed by baptisms. Or is Billy's practice GASP unbiblical? Blessings [/quote] Actually, I'm not a big fan of altar calls. Not so much that it's an "unbiblical practice" but that it's a manipulative action employed to bring numbers in.
KnightofChrist Posted September 29, 2006 Posted September 29, 2006 Well Reform I do pray you rethink your toughts on baptism being a symbol...
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