Resurrexi Posted December 5, 2006 Posted December 5, 2006 What was the exact reason the hyppocrites had Christ killed?
Aloysius Posted December 5, 2006 Posted December 5, 2006 Rome executed Jesus for claiming to be king of a Roman province. The inscription, INRI, Jesus the Nazarene, King of the Jews, was an inscription of the exact crime Rome accused Him of. The Jews turned Christ over with the intent of having him killed because of blasphemy. Not only did He say the name of God, which only the High priest was allowed to say and only one time a year, but He said it identifying Himself as God. The Jews had an exempt status, I think it was actually called an "indult", from worshipping Caesar because they were monotheists. Later on the Jews began reporting to the Romans that they no longer considered the Christian sect of Judaism as monotheist because they said God had a Divine Son, so they lost that protection. I suppose it may also be possible that the Jews told the Romans that because Jesus claimed to be the Son of God He was also not a monotheist... but that's just conjecture.
Groo the Wanderer Posted December 5, 2006 Posted December 5, 2006 Because He was an instigator. In a nutshell, Christ threatened their power base. By exposing their hypocrisy to the masses and showing the people a better way, the Sanhedrin stood to lose a lot if not all of their influence. Politics. Simple, unadulterated politics.
Aloysius Posted December 5, 2006 Posted December 5, 2006 that is why they arrested him, yes. and they did plan to kill him for that, but the witnesses were inconsistent. in the end, they killed Him for what they deemed as blasphemy (and it would have been had it not been essentially true, as we hold as Christians that it was)
rkwright Posted December 6, 2006 Posted December 6, 2006 Just curious... what are the latin words in INRI... Iesus ___ Rex __ ??
Groo the Wanderer Posted December 6, 2006 Posted December 6, 2006 Iesvs Nazarenvs Rex Ivdaeorvm There is no J in Latin....nor a U
rkwright Posted December 6, 2006 Posted December 6, 2006 [quote name='Groo the Wanderer' post='1136495' date='Dec 6 2006, 01:07 PM'] Iesvs Nazarenvs Rex Ivdaeorvm There is no J in Latin....nor a U [/quote] I knew there was no J, but also no U in latin?? Is there a difference from the Latin that was written in the time of Christ and the latin that was written throughout the Church's History? I know theres a different pronunciation, but is there also a difference in the alphabet?
Resurrexi Posted December 6, 2006 Author Posted December 6, 2006 Yes, the Js and Vs you see in missals, breviaries, etc., as well as the accent accent marks, evolved after the Church adopted Latin, previous to that there were no such things in Latin.
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