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What Is The Name Of The Trinity?


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Thy Geekdom Come
Posted

FT, you brought up the imagery of a herald. As you know, when a herald makes a proclamation, he does so in the name of the king, that is, with the king's authority.

If you read the verses, it is clear from Matthew 28 that the Apostles are to baptize with the authority of Jesus Christ. That is why He says that He has been given all authority and then commands them to baptize. By claiming all authority and telling them to baptize with His authority, Jesus is saying, "baptize in my name, that is, in place of me, as my representative." That is why it is clear from Matthew 28 that Jesus is given the Apostles a mission to be His representatives. However, Jesus does more than just talk about His authority. He speaks of His authority and then switches to the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Why would He do that if He wanted them to baptize by His name? Jesus is making a distinction between implicitly saying that they are to baptize as His representatives (in His name) and explicitly saying that they are to baptize people in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit. Just the same, the implicit statement in Baptism is that the one who baptizes is doing so in the name of Jesus, but that the actual formula of words is "I baptize you in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit." So Jesus was telling them what their place should be in baptizing (they should be in Him) and what words they were to use (the Trinitarian formula). Thus, the Apostles wrote that one baptizes in the name of Jesus and this is true...one baptizes on behalf of Jesus and one is baptized into Jesus, who is our connection into the Trinity...but Jesus gives us one form and there is no good reason we should deviate from it.

As for being in heavenly places, the Catholic Church would say that we are in a heavenly place in the Mass, which is where we are joined to Jesus, our Lord and Savior. This is why the Mass is very similar to the Book of Revelation. We also sing "alleluia" and "holy, holy, holy!"

God bless,

Micah

Posted

[quote name='cmotherofpirl' post='1180397' date='Jan 30 2007, 02:55 PM']
We are not speaking in aramaic or hebrew we speak English so its JESUS.
[/quote]
So Jesus is the name of the Trinity.

cmotherofpirl
Posted

[quote name='FullTruth' post='1180402' date='Jan 30 2007, 02:58 PM']
So Jesus is the name of the Trinity.
[/quote]
No.
God is a Trinity, 3 persons [Father, Son and Holy Spirit] with one divine nature.

Yahweh is the name God identifies Himself with in Exodus. Jesus is His son. The Holy Spirit is the Holy Spirit.

Posted

[quote name='FullTruth' post='1180402' date='Jan 30 2007, 02:58 PM']So Jesus is the name of the Trinity.[/quote]In the Gospels, "In the name of..." doesn't just refer to the given name of the Savior, it also refers to the [i]authority[/i] of the Trinity.

Quoting from Catholic.com [url="http://www.catholic.com/library/Trinitarian_Baptism.asp"](link)[/url] :
[quote]"Jesus Only" Pentecostals note that Jesus told the apostles to baptize in "the name" (singular) of the Father, the Son, and the Spirit, but they make the mistake of assuming that name is Jesus. There may not be a single name that Jesus has in mind at all, just as when we say, “Stop! In the name of the law,” we do not have a personal name in mind. If he did have such a name in mind, it may have been something such as God or Yahweh or Lord.

"Jesus Only" Pentecostals also argue that the New Testament talks about people being baptized "in the name of Jesus," but there are only four such passages (Acts 2:38, 8:16, 10:48, and 19:5). Further, these passages do not use the same designation in each place (some say "Lord Jesus," other say "Jesus Christ"), indicating that they were not technical formulas used in the baptism but simply descriptions by Luke. These four descriptions are not to be considered as a substitute for or contradiction of the divine command of the Lord Jesus Christ to: "make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" (Matt. 28:19).

Rather, the phrase "baptized in the name of Jesus" is simply Luke’s way to distinguish Christian baptism from other baptisms of the period, such as John’s baptism (which Luke mentions in Acts 1:5, 22, 10:37, 11:16, 13:24, 18:25, 19:4), Jewish proselyte baptism, and the baptisms of pagan cults (such as Mithraism). It also indicates the person into whose Mystical Body baptism incorporates us (Rom. 6:3). [/quote]

In addition to the Early Church Fathers who are quoted in the article, two articles from the Summa Theologica are helpful:
[url="http://www.newadvent.org/summa/4066.htm#5"]Article 5. Whether this be a suitable form of Baptism: "I baptize thee in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost"?[/url]

[url="http://www.newadvent.org/summa/4066.htm#6"]Article 6. Whether Baptism can be conferred in the name of Christ?[/url]

Posted

[quote name='FullTruth' post='1180325' date='Jan 30 2007, 12:45 PM']
But that doesn't mean you should be baptized by repeating what Yeshua said.

You should obey Yeshua by baptizing in [b]the name[/b] of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost.

[/quote]So...I don't think this has been explained gramatically by anyone yet, so I will. When a sentence is split up like that, it is really a shortened version of another sentence. "baptize in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost" is, gramatically speaking, a shortened version of "baptize in the name of the Father, and baptize in the name of the Son, and baptize in the name of the Holy Ghost"

See? It's all a gramatical misunderstanding on your part. Simple. But if I had to pick one name for God, it'd be...well, God! (with the exclamation point because he deserves it)

Posted

[quote name='Cathoholic Anonymous' post='1180383' date='Jan 30 2007, 01:40 PM']
Baptism is not an initation. It is a sacrament, which literally translates as 'sign of grace'.
[/quote]

Actually its one of the three sacraments of initiation.


Just to keep things clear folks.

Posted

The Tetragrammaton is the Four Letter unpronouncable Sacred Name of God. In the time of the old testament, you could be executed merely for pronouncing this sacred name. When it was written, it was written so as to remind people not to pronounce the sacred name, but to instead say "Adonai" meaning "Lord", which is why the vowels for adonai were transcribed into the text... those vowels are what ended up producing the latin word "Jehovah"

The actual four letters appear as this:
[size=7]
יחוה
[/size]

The symbol of the Spirit of God in the Old Testament was ש, the Shin, because it was the letter that began the word שדי which referred to God's presence in Spirit.

[size=7]שדי[/size]

When the temple was destroyed by Rome, the rabbis lamented saying that the very name of God had been torn apart, the yod-he (יח) from the vau-he (וה) and that only the Messiah could bring it back together.

The two words can be joined together by the shin to produce the pronouncable name of God: Jesus.

[size=7]
יחשוה[/size]

"I baptize you in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost" is the only way to baptize, because it is what Jesus Christ commanded. He did not command His Apostles to fill-in-the-blank and say "I baptize you in the name of Jesus"; He said to do it in the One Name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost; because in doing so you refer to the One Essence of the Triune God.

If you say "I baptize you in the name of Jesus", you do not refer to this same One Essence, but to the pronouncable name of the Son of God.

What is being said in this formula, given to us by our Savior, is this:

I baptize you in the name of the Father (יחוה), the Son (יחשוה), and the Holy Ghost (שדי).

It does not suffice to baptize in the particular name of the Son, because there is still the Tetragrammaton, the unpronouncable name of God, and the name of the Holy Ghost. But there is a one-name for the Triune God, and that's how Jesus Christ taught us to baptize.

But do you know why the Tetragrammaton was made to be unpronouncably sacred? Because the pagans, upon holding the name of their God, could thus obtain power from that god by using its name. But the One True God will not be dealt with in that way. And the way you are treating this name is much the same way pagans of old treated the names of their gods. That is the meaning of "Thou shalt not take the Name of the Lord thy God in vain"

Posted

FullTruth,

The Church was nearly a quarter of a century old before the first word of the NT was written, and an old lady of 60 to 70 when the Gospel of John was penned.

The only correct meaning of Scripture is the one the sacred authors intended to convey when they wrote it. To know that, one must know what the Catholic Church teaches -- the Church that was taught from the Apostles own lips before, during, and after the NT was written. The Catholic Faith comes to us from the Apostles.

The Church is guided by the Holy Spirit. We have God's Word on that (John 14:26, 16:18, 15:26, 16:7-5 et al.).

The Holy Spirit doesn't reaveal one Truth to the Church and another to an individual.

The Church is the "household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and bulwark of the Truth" 1 Timothy 3:15 RSV.

Peace be with you, Jay

-----------------------------
Blessed Father Damien, pray for us!

  • 3 years later...

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