4 Gospels

[-I---Love]

So an acquaintance sent me a few questions and this one I'd like some fresh thoughts on from others. It's basic, but sometimes it's good to get back to basics.


Why do the 4 gospels end so differently? They don't seem compatible, as if in the best moment in the story there is the most ambiguity.

[Thy Geekdom Come]

Well, the synoptic Gospels (Matthew, Mark, and Luke) were largely meant to serve the purpose of telling precisely what happened (and they still have tons of hidden meaning and undertones). They agree on most details. Those things they don't seem to agree on, well, I don't think they are mutually exclusive...in other words, why can't it be both ways? As for John, his whole Gospel is largely meant to relate deeper truths than just the surface value, so he tends to emphasize different things, but that doesn't mean that the things he doesn't mention didn't happen (for instance, he does not record the calling of the twelve, but he alludes to it...in other words, he knows it happened, but his purpose for writing was different).

I'd need to know the specifics of things your friend thought were incompatible in order to analyze further.

[-I---Love]

thanks for the reply

yeah, there were no more specifics, that's the exact question he asked - he doesn't "know" theology so like I said it's a very basic question.