argent_paladin Posted September 7, 2005 Share Posted September 7, 2005 No. The marriage is valid at consent. That is called ratum tantum. If one needed consumation for valid marriage, then Mary and Joseph were never validly married. A consummated marriage is called ratum et consummatum. It is then considered indissolvable. And I don't think that a natural but not sacramental marriage's dissolvability is a minor point. There are many people who were married before becoming Catholic or who are married to a non-Catholic. It happens more than you think. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
morostheos Posted September 8, 2005 Share Posted September 8, 2005 So then what is needed for a marriage to be sacramental?? Is that only when someone is married in the Catholic Church? I thought other marriages were sacramental too though.... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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